In the name of God, the most gracious, the most merciful

2- In Surah Taha:-

(10) When he saw a fire and said to his family, "Stay here; indeed, I have perceived a fire; perhaps I can bring you a torch or find at the fire some guidance."
(11) And when he came to it, he was called, "O Moses,
(12) Indeed, I am your Lord, so remove your sandals. Indeed, you are in the blessed valley of Ṭuwā.
(13) And I have chosen you, so listen to what is revealed [to you].
(14) Indeed, I am Allāh. There is no deity except Me, so worship Me and establish prayer for My remembrance.
(15) Indeed, the Hour is coming - I almost conceal it - so that every soul may be recompensed according to that for which it strives.
(16) So do not let one avert you from it who does not believe in it and follows his desire, for you [then] would perish.
(17) And what is that in your right hand, O Moses?"
(18) He said, "It is my staff; I lean upon it, and I bring down leaves for my sheep and I have therein other uses."
(19) [Allāh] said, "Throw it down, O Moses."
(20) So he threw it down, and thereupon it was a snake, moving swiftly.
(21) [Allāh] said, "Seize it and fear not; We will return it to its former condition.
(22) And draw in your hand to your side; it will come out white without disease - another sign,
(23) That We may show you [some] of Our greater signs.
(24) Go to Pharaoh. Indeed, he has transgressed [i.e., tyrannized]."
(25) [Moses] said, "My Lord, expand [i.e., relax] for me my breast [with assurance]
(26) And ease for me my task
(27) And untie the knot from my tongue
(28) That they may understand my speech.
(29) And appoint for me a minister [i.e., assistant] from my family -
(30) Aaron, my brother.
(31) Increase through him my strength
(32) And let him share my task
(33) That we may exalt You much
(34) And remember You much.
(35) Indeed, You are of us ever Seeing."
(36) [Allāh] said, "You have been granted your request, O Moses. (37) And We had already conferred favor upon you another time, (38)

…..
(41) And I produced you for Myself.
(42) Go, you and your brother, with My signs and do not slacken in My remembrance.
(43) Go, both of you, to Pharaoh. Indeed, he has transgressed.
(44) And speak to him with gentle speech that perhaps he may be reminded or fear [Allāh]."
(45) They said, “Our Lord, indeed we are afraid that he will hasten [punishment] against us or that he will transgress.”

3- In Surah Al-Qasas:-

(29) And when Moses had completed the term and was traveling with his family, he perceived from the direction of the mount a fire. He said to his family, "Stay here; indeed, I have perceived a fire. Perhaps I will bring you from there [some] information or burning wood from the fire that you may warm yourselves."
(30) But when he came to it, he was called from the right side of the valley in a blessed spot - from the tree, "O Moses, indeed I am Allāh, Lord of the worlds."
(31) And [he was told], "Throw down your staff." But when he saw it writhing as if it was a snake, he turned in flight and did not return. [Allāh said], "O Moses, approach and fear not. Indeed, you are of the secure.
(32) Insert your hand into the opening of your garment; it will come out white, without disease. And draw in your arm close to you [as prevention] from fear, for those are two proofs from your Lord to Pharaoh and his establishment. Indeed, they have been a people defiantly disobedient."
(33) He said, "My Lord, indeed I killed from among them someone, and I fear they will kill me.
(34) And my brother Aaron is more fluent than me in tongue, so send him with me as support, verifying me. Indeed, I fear that they will deny me."
(35) [Allāh] said, "We will strengthen your arm through your brother and grant you both supremacy so they will not reach you. [It will be] through Our signs; you and those who follow you will be the predominant."
(36) But when Moses came to them with Our signs as clear evidences, they said, "This is not except invented magic, and we have not heard of this [religion] among our forefathers."

The skeptic then says:

There are several differences and contradictions here, which are:

1- Did Musa say to his family "لَّعَلِّي آتيكم" (perhaps I will come to you) or "سَآتِيكُم" (I will come to you)? The word "لَّعَلِّي" implies doubt, while "سَآتِيكُم" implies certainty. So, was Musa doubtful or certain? What exactly did Musa say? Did he say "لَّعَلِّي آتيكم" or "سَآتِيكُم"? It is impossible for our beloved Muslims to say these are two different stories because this story happened only once, not twice. It is also unreasonable to think that Musa said both sentences at the same time. So, the question that arises and that we want our beloved Muslims to answer is: What exactly did Musa say? Did he say "سَآتِيكُم," which implies certainty, or "لَّعَلِّي," which implies doubt?

2- Did Musa inform his family that he would bring "شِهَابٍ قَبَسٍ" (a flaming firebrand), "قَبَسٍ" (a firebrand), or "جَذْوَةٍ مِّنَ النَّارِ" (a burning brand from the fire)? Someone might say that all these words mean the same thing, but the question I am asking is: What exactly did Musa say to his family? It is unreasonable to think that he said all three sentences one after the other. So, the question is: What did Musa say?

3- How did Allah call Musa? Did He first say to him, "بُورِكَ مَن فِي النَّارِ وَمَنْ حَوْلَهَا وَسُبْحَانَ اللَّهِ رَبِّ الْعَالَمِينَ" (Blessed is whoever is in the fire and whoever is around it, and glorified is Allah, the Lord of the worlds), and then say, "يا موسى أنا الله" (O Musa, I am Allah), as mentioned in Surah An-Naml? Or did He first say to him, "اخلع نعليك إِنَّكَ بِالْوَادِ الْمُقَدَّسِ طُوًى وَأَنَا اخْتَرْتُكَ فَاسْتَمِعْ لِمَا يُوحَىٰ" (Take off your sandals, for you are in the sacred valley of Tuwa, and I have chosen you, so listen to what is revealed), and then say, "أنا الله" (I am Allah), as mentioned in Surah Taha? Or did He say to him, "أنا الله" (I am Allah) directly without any introduction, as mentioned in Surah Al-Qasas? We want our beloved Muslims to tell us which narration is correct and what was the first sentence Allah said to Musa.

4- Did Allah say to Musa, "أَنَا اللَّهُ الْعَزِيزُ الْحَكِيمُ" (I am Allah, the Mighty, the Wise), or "أَنَا اللَّهُ لَا إِلَٰهَ إِلَّا أَنَا" (I am Allah, there is no god but Me), or "أَنَا اللَّهُ رَبُّ الْعَالَمِينَ" (I am Allah, the Lord of the worlds)? Of course, someone might say that all these meanings are the same, but I am not talking about the meanings. I am talking about the exact sentence that the God of Islam said to Musa. Did He say "العزيز الحكيم" (the Mighty, the Wise), "لا اله الا انا" (there is no god but Me), or "رب العالمين" (the Lord of the worlds)?

5- Did Allah say to Musa, "أَلْقِ عَصَاكَ" (Throw your staff) without any introduction, as mentioned in Surahs An-Naml and Al-Qasas, or did He first say to him, "وَمَا تِلْكَ بِيَمِينِكَ يَا مُوسَىٰ" (What is that in your right hand, O Musa?), before telling him to throw it? This question in itself is problematic because does the God of Islam not know what is in Musa's hand? We would like our beloved Muslims to respond to all these shocking questions and strange issues in their book.

6- Did Allah tell Musa to put his hand in his "جيب" (bosom), as mentioned in Surahs An-Naml and Al-Qasas, or under his "جناح" (armpit), as mentioned in Surah Al-Qasas? There is a big difference between "جيب" (bosom) and "جناح" (armpit). "جيب" refers to the pocket of a shirt or pants, while "جناح" refers to under the armpit. Of course, the God of Islam took this from the Book of Exodus, but He took it in a confused manner because in the Book of Exodus, Musa put his hand inside his chest like this (and the skeptic puts his hand inside the shirt he is wearing at his chest). So, the question is: Did Allah command Musa to put his hand in his bosom or under his armpit?

7- Did Allah say to Musa, "وَأَدْخِلْ يَدَكَ فِي جَيْبِكَ تَخْرُجْ بَيْضَاءَ مِنْ غَيْرِ سُوءٍ فِي تِسْعِ آيَاتٍ إِلَىٰ فِرْعَوْنَ" (And put your hand into the opening of your garment [at the breast]; it will come out white without disease. [These are] among the nine signs [you will take] to Pharaoh), as mentioned in Surah An-Naml, or did He say, "وَاضْمُمْ إِلَيْكَ جَنَاحَكَ مِنَ الرَّهْبِ فَذَانِكَ بُرْهَانَانِ مِن رَّبِّكَ إِلَىٰ فِرْعَوْنَ" (Insert your hand into the opening of your garment; it will come out white, without disease. And draw in your arm close to you [as prevention] from fear, for those are two proofs from your Lord to Pharaoh)? Does this mean He said "برهانان" (two proofs) or "تسع آيات" (nine signs)? I know someone might say that the two proofs are one thing, and the nine signs are another, and I know there is no problem with that. But the question I am posing to our beloved Muslims is: What exactly did the God of Islam say to Musa? What were the exact words that came out of the God of Islam? Were they "برهانان" (two proofs) or "تسع آيات" (nine signs)? And no one should tell me that the two proofs are the nine signs because that is a numerical difference: "برهانان" means two, and "تسع" means nine.

8- Did the God of Islam say to Musa, "لِنُرِيَكَ مِنْ آيَاتِنَا الْكُبْرَى" (That We may show you [some] of Our greater signs.), as mentioned in Surah Taha, or to Pharaoh, as mentioned in Surahs Al-Qasas and An-Naml? So, was this miracle for Musa or for Pharaoh? And does Musa need a miracle to be performed for him?

9- Did the people of Pharaoh say, "هَٰذَا سِحْرٌ مُّبِينٌ" (This is obvious magic), or "مَا هَٰذَا إِلَّا سِحْرٌ مُّفْتَرًى" (This is not except invented magic)? So, did they say "مبين" (clear or obvious ) or "مفترى" (fabricated or invented)? I want the exact wording they used. Also, the meaning of "مبين" is different from "مفترى." "مبين" means clear or evident, while "مفترى" means fabricated or false. So, which one did the people say?

10- Was Musa alone when the God of Islam spoke to him and asked him to go to Pharaoh, or was Harun (Aaron) with him? Of course, in Surahs Al-Qasas and An-Naml, we find that Musa was alone, but in Surah Taha, we find that Harun was with him. The evidence for this is what is mentioned in Surah Taha, where the Quran says, "اذْهَبَا إِلَىٰ فِرْعَوْنَ إِنَّهُ طَغَىٰ" (Go, both of you, to Pharaoh, for he has transgressed), "فَقُولَا لَهُ قَوْلًا لَّيِّنًا لَّعَلَّهُ يَتَذَكَّرُ أَوْ يَخْشَىٰ" (And speak to him gently, that he might remember or fear), "قَالَا رَبَّنَا إِنَّنَا نَخَافُ أَن يَفْرَطَ عَلَيْنَا أَوْ أَن يَطْغَىٰ" (They said, 'Our Lord, we fear that he will hasten against us or that he will transgress'). So, how could it say "قالا" (they said) if Harun was not with him in the same place where the God of Islam was speaking to him? So, the question is: Was Musa alone, or was Harun with him?

11 (Additional) - When Moses presented his miracles to Pharaoh, there are two verses that describe the scene: (The elite among Pharaoh's people said, "This is indeed a skilled magician") and (He said to the elite around him, "This is indeed a skilled magician"). So who said this phrase? Was it Pharaoh or his elite?

At the end of the episode, I hope that our beloved Muslims will respond to the questions of this blessed episode.

And now, let us respond to the questions of this catastrophic episode, not the blessed one, as the skeptic said at the end of his episode.

1- Did Musa say to his family "لَّعَلِّي آتيكم" (perhaps I will come to you) or "سَآتِيكُم" (I will come to you)? The word "لَّعَلِّي" implies doubt, while "سَآتِيكُم" implies certainty. So, was Musa doubtful or certain? What exactly did Musa say?

To respond, we say:

First:

We must know something very important, which the skeptic has focused on in all his questions. He always says in all his questions: “What exactly did Musa say?" “What exactly did Allah say?” To respond to this repeated question, we say that all the words and expressions in the Quran, whether in this story or in other stories, are not the original dialogue, whether the speaker was Allah or humans. This is because the original dialogue, whether it was said by Allah or humans, was not in Arabic but in other languages. For example, the dialogue between Allah and Musa was not in Arabic but in Hebrew or Hieroglyphics or perhaps another language that Musa knew. Some might think that this is a literal translation of the original dialogue, but we say that this is also incorrect because if the Quran were merely a literal translation of ancient dialogues, whether from Allah or humans, it would not be attributed to the Quran as a linguistic miracle, nor would it stand out from other divine books in the beauty and eloquence of its words and expressions, whether said by Allah or humans. For example, if we say that the verse "يَا صَاحِبَيِ السِّجْنِ أَأَرْبَابٌ مُّتَفَرِّقُونَ خَيْرٌ أَمِ اللَّهُ الْوَاحِدُ الْقَهَّارُ" (O two companions of the prison, are separate lords better or Allah, the One, the Prevailing?) in Surah Yusuf (12:39), which Allah said on behalf of Yusuf, if this verse were a literal translation of what Yusuf actually said, then the beauty and eloquence of this verse would be attributed to Yusuf, not to Allah or the Quran.

Some might ask: If the Quran is not the original dialogue due to the difference in language, and if it is not a literal translation to make the Quran unique in its linguistic miracle, then what is the Quran? We say to them that the Quran is the essence of the meanings of ancient dialogues, whether from Allah or humans, written in a unique style in the Arabic language that no human can replicate, even if they are talking about the same story that the Quran is talking about. Therefore, the Quran contains the meanings and essence of the dialogues and stories without deviating from their essence, message, and purpose.

Second:

Did Musa say to his family "لَّعَلِّي آتيكم" (perhaps I will come to you) or "سَآتِيكُم" (I will come to you)? Indeed, the two words differ in meaning. The word "لَّعَلِّي آتيكم" implies uncertainty and hope for something to happen, while the word "سَآتِيكُم" implies certainty that it will happen. Despite this, there is no contradiction between the verses, and someone might say: How is there no contradiction when the meanings are different? I say to them that if a word implying certainty is followed by a word implying doubt, it cancels the certainty of the first word. Here is an example:

If I say: "سَآتِيكُم بِمَاءٍ" (I will bring you water), this means that I have confirmed that I will bring water.

But if I say: "سَآتِيكُم بِمَاءٍ أَوْ لَبَنٍ" (I will bring you water or milk), does this mean that I am certain that I will bring water? No, it means that I might bring water or milk.

Thus, the word "أَوْ" (or) cancels the certainty of the word "سَآتِيكُم" (I will bring you).

Now, let us look at the verses to understand them well in light of the previous explanation:

• “إِذْ قَالَ مُوسَىٰ لِأَهْلِهِ إِنِّي آنَسْتُ نَارًا سَآتِيكُم مِّنْهَا بِخَبَرٍ أَوْ آتِيكُم بِشِهَابٍ قَبَسٍ لَّعَلَّكُمْ تَصْطَلُونَ”

  [Mention] when Moses said to his family, "Indeed, I have perceived a fire. I will bring you from there information or will bring you a burning torch that you may warm yourselves." (An-Naml: 7)

   

• “إِذْ رَأَىٰ نَارًا فَقَالَ لِأَهْلِهِ امْكُثُوا إِنِّي آنَسْتُ نَارًا لَّعَلِّي آتِيكُم مِّنْهَا بِقَبَسٍ أَوْ أَجِدُ عَلَى النَّارِ هُدًى”

  When he saw a fire and said to his family, "Stay here; indeed, I have perceived a fire; perhaps I can bring you a torch or find at the fire some guidance." (Taha 10)

   

• “فَلَمَّا قَضَىٰ مُوسَى الْأَجَلَ وَسَارَ بِأَهْلِهِ آنَسَ مِن جَانِبِ الطُّورِ نَارًا قَالَ لِأَهْلِهِ امْكُثُوا إِنِّي آنَسْتُ نَارًا لَّعَلِّي آتِيكُم مِّنْهَا بِخَبَرٍ أَوْ جَذْوَةٍ مِّنَ النَّارِ لَعَلَّكُمْ تَصْطَلُونَ”

  And when Moses had completed the term and was traveling with his family, he perceived from the direction of the mount a fire. He said to his family, "Stay here; indeed, I have perceived a fire. Perhaps I will bring you from there [some] information or burning wood from the fire that you may warm yourselves." (Qasas 29)

   

In the verses of Taha and Al-Qasas, Musa is uncertain about what he will bring. Will it be "خَبَرٍ" (information), which means finding guidance at the fire, or will it be "قَبَسٍ" (a firebrand), which means a burning brand from the fire?

In the verse of An-Naml, he is also uncertain, as evidenced by his saying "أَوْ آتِيكُم بِشِهَابٍ قَبَسٍ" (or bring you a burning brand). If Musa were certain that he would bring something specific, he would have said that thing without mentioning the other option and using the word "أَوْ" (or).

The conclusion in this matter is that if Musa had said "سَآتِيكُم مِّنْهَا بِخَبَرٍ" (I will bring you some information) without using the word "أَوْ" (or) or replacing it with the conjunction "وَ" (and), the skeptic would have had a point. But in all three verses, Musa is uncertain about bringing something specific, and this is the meaning that Allah wants us to understand.

And someone might say that the word "سَيَأْتِي" (he will come) implies that he is certain that he will come with one of the two things (the news or the fire), whereas the word "لَعَلِّي" (perhaps) implies that he is uncertain whether he will come with one of the two things on one hand, or that he will not come with anything on the other hand. Therefore, the question in light of this statement is: Is Musa certain that he will come with one of the two things (the news or the fire), or is he uncertain that he will come with one of the two things?

To respond to this assumption, we say that the word "لَعَلِّي" does not necessarily mean that something will happen on one hand or that it will not happen on the other. Here is an example of this:

When I say: "لَعَلِّي آتِيكُمْ بِالْغَدَاءِ" (Perhaps I will bring you lunch), here "لَعَلِّي" implies doubt, but doubt about what? The sentence contains only one action, which is bringing lunch. So where is the other action that makes us doubt between the two? Here, the absence of the other action makes us lean toward the idea that the other action is the non-occurrence of the action mentioned in the sentence.

However, when I say: "لَعَلِّي آتِيكُمْ بِالْغَدَاءِ أَوِ الْعَشَاءِ" (Perhaps I will bring you lunch or dinner), here "لَعَلِّي" implies doubt, and the doubt here is between two actions: bringing lunch or bringing dinner. This is also similar to what was mentioned in Surah 'Abasa regarding the blind man, where Allah said about him:

وَمَا يُدْرِيكَ لَعَلَّهُ يَزَّكَّى أَوْ يَذَّكَّرُ فَتَنْفَعَهُ الذِّكْرَى
(3) But what would make you perceive, [O Muḥammad], that perhaps he might be purified
(4) Or be reminded and the remembrance would benefit him?

Here, Allah placed the word "لَعَلَّ" (perhaps) between two choices: that he might be purified or that he might be reminded. This is because the blind man was hoping for one of these two things when he came to the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him), and thus Allah reproached him for turning away from the blind man.

Some might apply the rule of the lunch example and say that the doubt here is between bringing lunch or dinner on one hand, and not bringing anything on the other. I would say to them that this is a possibility, just like the possibility of doubt between lunch and dinner. What tips the scale between the two possibilities is the intention of the speaker, which is what the Qur’an clarified regarding this doubt that we are discussing in the verse of An-Naml, where Musa said: "سَآتِيكُمْ مِنْهَا بِخَبَرٍ أَوْ آتِيكُمْ بِشِهَابِ قَبَسٍ" (I will bring you from it [some] information, or I will bring you a burning torch). Thus, the Qur’an clarified Musa’s intention in the two instances where "لَعَلِّي" was used, which is the doubt between the two things (the news or the fire).

On the other hand, upon closer examination of Musa’s statement ("the news or the fire"), we find that he had considered all the possible scenarios available to him in that situation. When a person sees a fire in an uninhabited place, they are faced with two choices and no third: either they find out the reason for the fire’s existence—whether it is a real fire or not, and whether there is someone at the fire who can help them or not—and this is bringing the news; or they do not know the reason for the fire’s existence and do not find anyone there to help them, so they take a portion of the fire for their family—and this is bringing the fire.

Therefore, there is no contradiction between the word "سَآتِي" (I will come) and the word "لَعَلِّي" (perhaps I..), because both imply doubt, as we have explained. Moreover, there is no third option for Musa between the news or the fire.

CHECK THIS VIDEO FOR MORE DETAILS:

Same Situation, Different Quotes? How is that possible? | Arabic101

(Backup link)

2- Did Musa inform his family that he would bring a شِهَابٍ قَبَسٍ (a flame of fire), or a قَبَسٍ (a spark), or a جَذْوَةٍ مِّنَ النَّارِ (a burning brand of fire)?

First:

All these expressions have the same meaning, which is fire. For example, if I say, "I will bring you a piece of fire," the meaning does not change if I say, "I will bring you a flame of fire," nor does it change if I say, "I will bring you fire." This is because fire is the same as a flame of fire, which is the same as a piece of fire.

Second:

Regarding the words Musa used, we say that Musa did not use any of these expressions because he was not speaking Arabic. Rather, these expressions are translations of the sentence Musa said to his family in his own language. The expressions may differ in wording as long as they convey the same meaning, which is what happened in the verses. All the expressions mean and refer to fire, and that is the intended meaning.

3- How did God call Musa? Did He first say, "Blessed is whoever is in the fire and whoever is around it, and glory be to God, the Lord of the worlds," as mentioned in Surah An-Naml, and then say, "O Musa, I am God"? Or did He first say, "Take off your sandals, for you are in the sacred valley of Tuwa, and I have chosen you, so listen to what is revealed," as mentioned in Surah Taha, and then say, "I am God"? Or did He say, "I am God," directly without any introduction, as mentioned in Surah Al-Qasas?

Here, it is important to understand something crucial: the stories in the Quran are not intended for mere storytelling, historical narration, or entertainment. The Quran is not a historical book that chronicles the history of nations or records events for history's sake. Rather, the purpose of the stories in the Quran is to derive lessons, wisdom, and admonition. Therefore, a story may be told once in its entirety, like the story of Yusuf, because the lesson from Yusuf's story cannot be fully grasped unless the story is told completely. Hence, the story of Yusuf is mentioned only once and in full. However, the story of Musa is rich in events, lessons, and admonitions. A single incident can provide multiple lessons and insights.

Therefore, the same story—or even the same incident—is mentioned multiple times in the Quran. Each time, the incident is presented from a different angle or with a different focus, depending on the objective and the intended message of that Surah. This is not a contradiction but rather complementary events that complete each other and do not contradict one another. A contradiction would be presenting one piece of information and then presenting its opposite, which is not the case here. For example, in their book (the Bible), it is mentioned about Ahaziah's age when he became king:

"Ahaziah was twenty-two years old when he became king, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem. His mother’s name was Athaliah, the granddaughter of Omri, king of Israel." (2 Kings 8:26)

"Ahaziah was forty-two years old when he became king, and he reigned one year in Jerusalem. His mother’s name was Athaliah, the granddaughter of Omri." (2 Chronicles 22:2)

And similarly, regarding Michal, whether she had children or not:

"And Michal, the daughter of Saul, had no children to the day of her death." (2 Samuel 6:23)

"But the five sons of Michal, the daughter of Saul, whom she bore to Adriel, the son of Barzillai the Meholathite." (2 Samuel 21:8)

However, if one piece of information is presented, and then another piece is presented to clarify or complete the picture without negating the previous information, this is not a contradiction.

For example, in Surah Taha, we find the dialogue between God and Musa after He commanded him to go to Pharaoh. In this dialogue, Musa asks God to let Harun accompany him in this mission. This dialogue is not mentioned in Surah An-Naml or Al-Qasas. Is this a contradiction? Of course not, because each Surah has its own objective and wisdom behind the verses. Returning to the question raised by the skeptic: Did God first say, "Blessed is whoever is in the fire and whoever is around it, and glory be to God, the Lord of the worlds," as mentioned in Surah An-Naml, and then say, "O Musa, I am God"? Or did He first say, "Take off your sandals, for you are in the sacred valley of Tuwa, and I have chosen you, so listen to what is revealed," as mentioned in Surah Taha, and then say, "I am God"? Or did He say, "I am God," directly without any introduction, as mentioned in Surah Al-Qasas?

To respond, we must present all the verses related to this issue:

"So when he came to it, he was called, 'Blessed is whoever is in the fire and whoever is around it. And glory be to God, the Lord of the worlds.' (8) O Musa, indeed, it is I—God, the Exalted in Might, the Wise." (9) — Surah An-Naml

"And when he came to it, he was called, 'O Musa, (11) Indeed, I am your Lord, so remove your sandals. Indeed, you are in the sacred valley of Tuwa. (12) And I have chosen you, so listen to what is revealed.' (13)" — Surah Taha

"And when he came to it, he was called from the right side of the valley in the blessed spot from the tree, 'O Musa, indeed, I am God, the Lord of the worlds.' (30)" — Surah Al-Qasas

Here, there is no contradiction. When God first began His conversation with Musa, He blessed those in the fire (the angels) and those around it (Musa), as mentioned in Surah An-Naml. Then He declared Himself to Musa and immediately commanded him to remove his sandals because he was in a sacred valley, as mentioned in Surah Taha. Then He declared Himself to him again, as mentioned in Surah Al-Qasas. This also aligns with Surah Taha, where God declared Himself to Musa twice: once before commanding him to remove his sandals and once after he removed them, as He says:

"Indeed, I am your Lord, so remove your sandals. Indeed, you are in the sacred valley of Tuwa. (12) And I have chosen you, so listen to what is revealed. (13) Indeed, I am God; there is no deity except Me, so worship Me and establish prayer for My remembrance." (14)

As for what is mentioned in Surah Al-Qasas, there is no contradiction either, because the verse speaks about Musa's location in the blessed spot, where he stood on the right side of the tree, and then God declared Himself to him.

As for why the blessing of the fire is not mentioned in Surahs Taha and Al-Qasas but is mentioned in Surah An-Naml, I say to him: Just as the removal of Musa's sandals and the mention of the sacred valley are mentioned in Surah Taha but not in Surahs An-Naml or Al-Qasas, and just as the mention of the right side of the tree is mentioned in Surah Al-Qasas but not in Surahs An-Naml or Taha, this is to teach us that God blessed this land in multiple ways and not in just one way, so that we may understand the extent of the blessings of this sacred land.

4- Did God say to Moses, "I am Allah, the Mighty, the Wise," or did He say, "I am Allah, there is no god but Me," or did He say, "I am Allah, the Lord of the worlds?" Of course, someone might tell me that they all have the same meaning, and I would say to them, I am not talking about the meanings, but rather I am talking about the exact sentence that the God of Islam said to Moses. Did He say, "the Mighty, the Wise," or "there is no god but Me," or “the Lord of the worlds?”

In fact, as we mentioned earlier, God did not say these exact words to Moses, but rather addressed him in words that were either Hebrew, hieroglyphic, or in another language that Moses understood. As for the words of the Quran, they are expressions in the Arabic language that carry the same meanings as the original words used in the dialogue. Therefore, all these expressions, whether "the Mighty, the Wise," "there is no god but Me," or "the Lord of the worlds," are all the same meanings as the words that God said to Moses.

And so that the reader does not think that we are just saying words and that's it, let us go to the Old Testament. What did God say to Moses? He said to him, "I am Yahweh," and Yahweh, as the website Anba Takla says about it, is a name that refers to many things. It refers to the fact that God is not an idea or that His existence fades away, and it refers to God's work, His will, and His eternity, and that He is the Almighty God who has no equal.

Some might ask, why did the Quran not say that God said to Moses, "I am Yahweh?" This is because the name Yahweh was not known to the Arabs, but they knew Him by the name Allah. Pope Shenouda was also asked about this matter on the Anba Takla website, whether the name Allah of Islam is not the same as Yahweh? The Pope answered with a long response in which he proved that Allah is the same as Yahweh, and that Allah is the God of all, not a name specific to Muslims or a name invented by the Quran.

5- Did God say to Moses, "Throw down your staff," without any introduction, as it came in Surat An-Naml and Surat Al-Qasas, or did He say to him, "And what is that in your right hand, O Moses?" before saying to him, "Throw it down?" And this question in itself is a problem because does the God of Islam not know what is in Moses' hand?

First:

Surat Taha is unique among the other surahs in mentioning many details in the dialogue that took place between God and Moses. This is because Surat Taha was revealed to strengthen the heart of the Prophet, peace be upon him, and to give him glad tidings that victory is coming no matter the difficulties and no matter the distress. Therefore, it came at the beginning of the surah:

“Ta-Ha. We have not sent down to you the Quran that you be distressed. But only as a reminder for those who fear [Allah].”

So this surah came to console the Prophet, and therefore the story of Moses came in the surah in detail with many details. Among these details is God's question to Moses, as we mentioned earlier. The appearance of new details or a new part that was not mentioned does not mean contradiction, but rather it is a completion of the picture that is formed in the reader's mind. The mention of God's question to Moses in Surat Taha and its absence in other places does not mean doubting whether God asked Moses or not, but rather it is a confirmation of the question. As for why it was not mentioned in Surat An-Naml and Surat Al-Qasas, it is because the story of Moses in these two surahs is brief and summarized, while in Surat Taha, as we said, it came in detail to console the Prophet from the distress he was facing from his people, as mentioned at the beginning of the surah as we indicated.

Second:

As for God's question to Moses in itself, it is not because God does not know, God forbid, as the skeptic imagines, but rather this question was intended to make Moses sure that he is holding his staff and not a snake, and that the staff has indeed turned into a snake, and that Moses does not doubt that the staff, for example, is not his staff or that the staff had a snake on it before God transformed it.

So the question here is like a teacher who asks his student, "What is in your hand?" He knows what is in the student's hand, but he wants the student to answer himself so that he can establish an argument against him.

6- Did God say to Moses to put his hand in his pocket, as it came in Surat An-Naml and Surat Al-Qasas, or to put it under his arm, as it came in Surat Al-Qasas?

And of course, the skeptic's ignorance of the word "pocket" made him mock and say things that make people laugh at him, and in the end, he admitted something important while commenting on this point. To respond to this point, we must first know what "pocket" means.

The pocket: It is the slit and the cut, as Al-Baghawi said.

What is the pocket meant in the verse - (from the interpretation of Ibn Kathir): He commanded him to put his hand in the pocket of his garment, and when he put it in and took it out, it came out white and shining.

And the pocket of the garment is the opening of the shirt from the chest side.

So he put his hand inside the opening of his shirt or his robe and placed his hand under his armpits from inside his clothes, which is what the skeptic did when he demonstrated how Moses put his hand according to the Old Testament, with the difference that he put his hand inside his chest only, while the Quran declared that he put it under his armpits from inside his clothes.

And someone might ask, why did the Quran not come with the full description? We say to him that this detailed description also came in Surat Taha, so that Surat Taha is unique in the detailed explanation compared to the other surahs, and we have explained the reason before.

7- Did Allah say to Moses, "And put your hand into the opening of your garment; it will come out white without harm, among nine signs to Pharaoh," as mentioned in Surah An-Naml, or did He say to him, "And draw your wing close to yourself out of fear; these are two proofs from your Lord to Pharaoh"? That is, did He say two proofs or nine signs?

Here, when the skeptic raised this point, he tried to divert the viewers' attention from something very important, which made him say as if his conscience suddenly awakened, saying, "I know someone might tell me that the two proofs are one thing, and the nine signs are another. I know that, and there’s no problem with that." Therefore, he framed his question in a different way than what any skeptic might typically ask, such as, "Did Allah send Moses to Pharaoh with two proofs or nine signs?" This would have been the logical question for any skeptic in this case. However, we found the skeptic asking the question in a strange way: "What exactly did the God of Islam say to Moses? What were the exact words that came from the God of Islam? Were they 'two proofs' or 'nine signs'?" The reason for presenting the question in this strange way, and his even stranger admission that the two proofs and the nine signs are separate issues, is that he deceived the viewers while presenting this point. He said:

Did Allah say to Moses, "And put your hand into the opening of your garment; it will come out white without harm, among nine signs to Pharaoh," or did He say to him, "And draw your wing close to yourself out of fear; these are two proofs from your Lord to Pharaoh"?

The deception here is that he did not present the two verses in their entirety. If he had presented the two verses in full, the confusion would have been resolved. The two verses in full are:

"And put your hand into the opening of your garment; it will come out white without harm, among nine signs to Pharaoh and his people. Indeed, they have been a people defiantly disobedient." (An-Naml: 12)

"Insert your hand into the opening of your garment; it will come out white without harm. And draw your wing close to yourself out of fear; these are two proofs from your Lord to Pharaoh and his establishment. Indeed, they have been a people defiantly disobedient." (Al-Qasas: 32)

This means that Allah told Moses that the nine signs were for Pharaoh and his people, while the two proofs were for Pharaoh and his establishment. The "people" here refers to the nation of Pharaoh, i.e., the people of Egypt, and all the people of Egypt would see the nine signs. As for the two proofs, they were for Pharaoh and his establishment, i.e., his court. The two proofs were the staff and the hand, and these two proofs were not seen by all the people of Egypt but only by Pharaoh’s court and perhaps a few others. The nine signs, however, were seen by all the people of Egypt, and they included the blood, locusts, frogs, etc.

As for his question about which wording the God of Islam used, it is clear after this simple explanation that He said both: to Pharaoh and his establishment, He gave two proofs, and to Pharaoh and his people, He gave nine signs. This is evident from the Quran’s distinction between "proofs" and "signs," as a proof is a sign of the truthfulness of the one who brings it, while a sign is a punishment from Allah to compel Pharaoh to submit to the message Moses conveyed from Allah.

8- Did the God of Islam say to Moses, "That We may show you [some] of Our greatest signs," as mentioned in Surah Ta-Ha, or to Pharaoh, as mentioned in Al-Qasas and An-Naml? That is, was this miracle for Moses or for Pharaoh? And does Moses need a miracle for himself?

This, of course, shows the skeptic’s ignorance, because the "greatest signs" refer to the miracle of the splitting of the sea, which is the greatest miracle. When Allah says to Moses, "That We may show you some of Our greatest signs," it is to strengthen Moses’ heart, meaning that Allah is telling him that these miracles are not the greatest of what He has; there is something greater, and He will show it to Moses. This does not negate that this miracle was also the final warning to Pharaoh before his destruction.

As for whether Moses needed a miracle for himself, he did not need a miracle for himself, but he needed Allah to reassure him of victory and to strengthen him because Pharaoh’s might and awe would make anyone fear him.

9- Did the people of Pharaoh say, "This is clear magic," or "This is nothing but fabricated magic"?

This is also a foolish question because there is no contradiction. A contradiction would exist if, for example, they said in one verse that it was strong magic and in another verse that it was weak magic. That would be a contradiction.

However, saying that it is "clear magic" (i.e., great) and saying that it is "fabricated magic" (i.e., false) does not constitute a contradiction because what the people claimed was that it was false magic, but it was great in the sense that no one could expose its falsehood and deception.

10- Was Moses alone when the God of Islam spoke to him and asked him to go to Pharaoh, or was he with Aaron?

This question is based on a misunderstanding by the skeptic, who imagined that the verses in Surah Ta-Ha from 43 to 45 were part of Allah’s conversation with Moses in the sacred valley. This is a major mistake because the verses starting from 43 are after Moses arrived in Egypt and met Aaron, telling him about what had happened. This is part of the Quran’s style of transitioning from one scene to another without mentioning obvious details. It is obvious that Moses would meet Aaron and tell him about what happened, but what happened was that Aaron became anxious, and Moses also became anxious with him, so Allah addressed them with these words:

“Go, both of you, to Pharaoh. Indeed, he has transgressed. (43) And speak to him with gentle speech that perhaps he may be reminded or fear [Allah]. (44) They said, 'Our Lord, indeed we are afraid that he will hasten [punishment] against us or that he will transgress.' (45) [Allah] said, 'Fear not. Indeed, I am with you both; I hear and I see.' (46)”

Verse 45 is evidence of their anxiety.

The proof that the Quran transitions between scenes without delving into obvious details is found in the verses that follow:

“[Allah] said, 'Fear not. Indeed, I am with you both; I hear and I see.' (46) So go to him and say, 'Indeed, we are messengers of your Lord, so send with us the Children of Israel and do not torment them. We have come to you with a sign from your Lord, and peace will be upon he who follows the guidance. (47) Indeed, it has been revealed to us that the punishment will be upon whoever denies and turns away.' (48) [Pharaoh] said, 'So who is the Lord of you two, O Moses?' (49)”

Of course, the last verse is Pharaoh’s response to them, and here the Quran does not say that they went to Pharaoh and recounted to him what Allah had told them. Instead, the Quran directly transitions to Pharaoh’s reaction. This is not a contradiction but rather a summary of obvious events, and there are many examples of this kind of summarization in the Quran, but we do not want to prolong this further.

11 (Additional) - Who is the author of the saying ( This is surely a skilled magician )? Pharaoh or his elite?

This is not a contradiction, because everyone has said this statement, and it is the nature of the courtiers to echo their king's words; they all said: "Indeed, this is a learned magician"

Ibn Kathir, may Allah have mercy on him, said:

"Said the eminent among the people of Pharaoh, "Indeed, this is a learned magician"" This means that the leaders - who were the public and the nobles of Pharaoh's people - agreed with Pharaoh's statement about him, after he regained his composure and settled back on the throne of his kingdom. He said to the leaders around him, 'Indeed, this is a learned magician' They concurred with him and echoed his words, discussing his matter and what they should do about him..." Ibn Kathir's Interpretation' (3 / 455) .

And Abu Hayyan Al-Andalusi, may Allah have mercy on him, said:

"Said the eminent among the people of Pharaoh, "Indeed, this is a learned magician"" And in Ash-Shu'ara: "[Pharaoh] said to the eminent ones around him, "Indeed, this is a learned magician" And the combination of the two: that Pharaoh and his people said this statement, so it is narrated here as their saying, and there is his saying. Or he said it at the outset, and the crowd seized upon it, so they conveyed it to their followers, or they spoke of it to the people in a manner of reporting, as kings do; one of them sees a viewpoint, then he communicates it to those closest to him, and then the close ones relay it to the general public. The Surrounding Sea" (4 / 358)

The question remains about the area of specialization of each Surah and what it is specifically concerned with?:

The answer is that when it was mentioned earlier in Surah Al-A'raf, the verse states: "Then We sent after them Moses with Our signs to Pharaoh and his chiefs" Since the mention of the people was included along with Pharaoh, it is appropriate to mention them in the response as if it were said: "He was sent to them and addressed them," and it would not have been suitable to say "sent to them" and then just mention Pharaoh.

If it was said: "It was said: In Al-A'raf, it is mentioned: "to Pharaoh and his chiefs" where Pharaoh is mentioned first, as he is the leader and they are his followers and supporters. So why wasn't the response based on that phrased as "Pharaoh said"?

The answer is: If it were said: Pharaoh said, there would remain a longing to understand the statement of the elite, as they were sent to them and addressed, and it is essential to know their response...

Then he said: "And when it was mentioned earlier in Surah Ash-Shu'ara, the phrase: (go to Pharaoh) was stated, and then the dialogue and discussion between Moses, peace be upon him, and Pharaoh took place, without the mention of the assembly here. This aligns with the phrase 'Pharaoh said' because he is the one who was addressed and engaged in the conversation, so everything came in accordance with what is appropriate." Angel of Interpretation" (1/214-215)

And Al-Buqai, may Allah have mercy on him, said:

"("Indeed, this is a learned magician")" means one who is highly knowledgeable in magic, and this statement is specifically attributed to him in this chapter because the entire context is dedicated to addressing him, as previously mentioned... "This does not negate the possibility that his people said it to show their submission - as mentioned in Al-A'raf." System of Pearls in the Correspondence of Verses and Chapters" (14 / 29)

And Allah knows best.

Additional:

[1] CHECK THIS VIDEO FOR MORE DETAILS:

Same Situation, Different Quotes? How is that possible? | Arabic101

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